I strongly disagree with this and my most recent post expresses those thoughts, even though I typed them without seeing your post until now.
That wasn't what the expressing of my thoughts. I was attempting to clarify JAB's argument so I could understand it better. With his above post, I understand it much better and agree with his argument.
Freefalling, I really like the historical context you provide, especially with respect to the standing army dilemma.
I have seen other articles on line where those for more gargue that the standing army acts in place of the "well regulated militia". Their reasoning is that the militia, understood to them as those called-to-arms similar to the aforementioned European armies, is meant to protect the state, and the standing army accomplishes that. The problem with their argument I believe can again be found in the context of the Framers. The Framers were revolutionists and saw what possible paths the government could take in usurping individual liberty. Hence, they saw the need to provide the people with a way to protect themselves from the State. I believe the "free State" mentioned in the 2A was meant to be understood as the freedom of the people in the State, and they protected that freedom through providing for a constitutionally allowed militia of the people which would be supplied through the right of the people to bear arms. I would believe that this would fall in line with the unorganized militia.
Thoughts from you more constitutionally well-read individuals on my logic? Keeping this going has clarified a few important issues for me and provided me with more solid arguments.